MCQ-LEM

SUBJECT:-LEM

BBA Sem- V
Subject:- Law, ethics and Management
1	A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself or by the conduct of any other person is called
	A.	Surety contract	B.	Simple contract
	C.	Contract of indemnity	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
2	"Indemnity" means
	A.	Security from damage or loss	B.	Security for more profit
	C.	An act for protection	D.	Both (a) and (b)
	Answer :- D
3	The contract of insurance is infact contract of
	A.	Urgency	B.	Indemnity
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
4	Section 124 to 147, of the Contract Act, deals with
	A.	Contracts of indemnity	B.	Contracts of guarantee
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
5	A breach of contract can be
	A.	Discharged	B.	Illegal
	C.	Void	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
6	Contract can be signed between
	A.	Individuals	B.	Legal Entities
	C.	Both (A) and (B)	D.	None of these
	Answer :- C
7	The Contract Act of 1872 was enacted on
	A.	25th April, 1872	B.	25th May, 1872
	C.	25th June, 1872	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
8	The Contract Act 1872 was enforced on
	A.	First day of July, 1872	B.	First August, 1872
	C.	1st September, 1872	D.	None of these
	Answer :- C
9	The Contract Act, 1872 consists_____ sections
	A.	238	B.	248
	C.	266	D.	None of these
	Answer :- A
10	When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing any thing with a view to obtaining the assent of that other person to such act or abstinence he is said to make a
	A.	Proposal	B.	Promise
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of these
	Answer :- A
11	When the person to whom the proposal is made signifies his assent thereto the proposal is said to be accepted than its called
	A.	Proposal	B.	Promise
	C.	Agreement	D.	None of these
	Answer :- B
12	The person making the proposal is called
	A.	Promiser	B.	Promisee
	C.	Both of above	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
13	The person to whom proposal is made is called
	A.	Promisor	B.	Promisee
	C.	Both of above	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
14	The person to whom proposal is made is called
	A.	Promisor	B.	Promisee
	C.	Both of above	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
15	Every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other
	A.	A proposal	B.	An offer
	C.	An agreement	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
16	"Reciprocal" Contracts means
	A.	One sided contracts	B.	Bilateral contracts
	C.	Trilateral contracts	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
17	An agreement not enforceable by law is called
	A.	Void agreement	B.	Valid agreement
	C.	Voidable agreement	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
18	An agreement enforceable by law is called
	A.	An agreement	B.	Contract
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
19	An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties there to but not at the option of other or others is
	A.	A void contract	B.	A voidable contract
	C.	A valid contract	D.	All of above
	Answer :- B
20	A proposes by letter to sell a house to B The Communication of the proposal is complete
	A.	When A make such proposal	B.	When B accepts the proposal
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
21	A proposal may be revoked by ways as are provided in section_____ of the Contract Act 1872.
	A.	5	B.	6
	C.	7	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
22	A proposal may be revoked at any time
	A.	Before the communication of its acceptance	B.	Before the rejection of its communication
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
23	In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must be
	A.	Conditional	B.	Unconditional
	C.	Absolute	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
24	All the agreements are contracts if they are made by free consent of the parties competent to contract for a _____ consideration and object
	A.	Any	B.	Lawful
	C.	Unlawful	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
25	The age limit for making a contract is
	A.	16 years	B.	17 years
	C.	Majority	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
26	A contract made by lunatic is____ in the eye of Law
	A.	Void	B.	Valid
	C.	Absolute	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
27	Free consent is_____ element for contract
	A.	Essential	B.	Discretional
	C.	Exceptional	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
28	The Term "Consent" means
	A.	Voluntary accordance with or concurrence in what is done or proposed by another	B.	Free mind
	C.	Free will	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- D
29	The term "Coercion" means
	A.	Committing or threatening to commit any act forbidden by the Pakistan Penal Code	B.	Compulsion
	C.	A unlawful pressure	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- D
30	The committing or threatening to commit any act forbidden by the Pakistan Penal Code, or the unlawful detaining or threatening to detain any property to the prejudice of any person whatever with intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement is called
	A.	Free consent	B.	Coercion
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
31	Undue influence make a contract
	A.	Void	B.	Voidable
	C.	Valid	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
32	The term "Fraud" means.
	A.	Active concealment of fact with knowledge and belief of the fact	B.	Doing any act fitted to deceive
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
33	Coercion, Fraud and misrepresentation makes contract
	A.	Void of the option of the party whose consent was caused	B.	Voidable on the option of the party whose consent so caused
	C.	Valid for both sides	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
34	Section 18 of the Contract Act, deals with
	A.	Coericon	B.	Fraud
	C.	Misrepresentation	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
35	A's son has forged B's name to a promissory note. B under threat of prosecuting A's son obtain a bond from A for the amount of the forged note. If B sues on this bond
	A.	The Court can accept the suit	B.	The Court may set aside the bonds
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
36	Mistake of fact
	A.	Makes a contract voidable	B.	Does not make a contract voidable
	C.	Makes a contract void	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
37	A agrees to buy from B a certain horse. It turns out that the horse was dead at the time of the bargain though neither party was aware of the fact the agreement is
	A.	Valid	B.	Void
	C.	Voidable	D.	Both (a) and (b)
	Answer :- B
38	When there is breach of contract the party which aggrieved by breach is entitled for
	A.	Compensation against the breacher	B.	Nothing
	C.	Registration of criminal Case against the breacher	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
39	A guaranfee which extend to a series of transactions is called
	A.	Special guarantee	B.	Continuing guarantee
	C.	Specific guarantee	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
40	Section 142 of the Contract Act 1872 deals with
	A.	Guarantee obtained by free consent	B.	Guarantee obtained by fraud
	C.	Guarantee obtained by miscrepresentation	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
41	Any guarantee obtained by means of misrepresentation made by the creditor or with his knowledge and assent concerning a material part of the transaction is
	A.	Valid	B.	Invalid
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
42	"Guarantee" means_______
	A.	Surety	B.	The word is also used as a name, to denote the contract of guarantee or the obligation of grantor
	C.	All the above	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
43	In contract of guarantee the person who gives guarantee is called
	A.	Surety	B.	Principal debtor
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
44	Section_____ to_____, at the Contract Act, deals with discharge of surety
	A.	130, 133	B.	133, 139
	C.	139, 144	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
45	The term "Bailment" means
	A.	A delivery of a thing entrusted for some special purpose or object upon a contract	B.	Delivery of goods free of cost
	C.	Delivery of goods without cost for welfare of public	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
46	The definition of 'Bailment' is provided in section_____, of the Contract Act.
	A.	146	B.	147
	C.	148	D.	All of above
	Answer :- C
47	The delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall when the purpose is accomplished be returned or otherwise dispose of upon discretion of the delivering person the contract is called
	A.	Indemnity	B.	Bailment
	C.	Contingent Contract	D.	None of above
	Answer :- B
48	The person who during the contract of bailment deliver goods is called
	A.	Bailor	B.	Bailee
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
49	The person to whom goods are delivered according Bailment is called
	A.	Bailor	B.	Bailee
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None
	Answer :- B
50	If the bailee, without the consent of the bailor, mixes the goods of the bailor with his own goods in such a manner that it is impossible to separate the goods bailed from the other goods and deliver them back, the bailor is entitled to be :
	A.	Compensated by the bailee for the loss of the goods	B.	Compensated by the bailee for the 1/3 of loss
	C.	Compensated by the bailee for the 1/2 of loss	D.	Compensated by the bailee for rupees 500
	Answer :- A
51	The Bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called :
	A.	Pledge	B.	Bailment
	C.	Contingent contract	D.	Agreement
	Answer :- A
52	Who may employ agent ?
	A.	Any person who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject	B.	Any person who is of sound mind
	C.	Any person who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject and who is of sound mind	D.	Citizen of India
	Answer :- C
53	Agent's authority may be :
	A.	Express	B.	Implied
	C.	Both (A) and (B)	D.	None of these
	Answer :- C
54	Consent means parties agreeing on
	A.	the terms of contract	B.	something about a contract
	C.	the something in the same sense	D.	the method of performance of contract
	Answer :- C
55	The person who gives the indemnity is known as
	A.	Indemnity-holder	B.	Surety
	C.	Indemnifier	D.	Principal debtor
	Answer :- C
56	In a contract of guarantee, a person who promises to discharge another’s liability, is known as
	A.	Principal debtor	B.	Creditor
	C.	Surety	D.	Indemnifier
	Answer :- C
57	A bailee has:
	A.	a right of particular lien over the goods bailed.	B.	a right of general lien
	C.	a right of both particular and general lien	D.	no lien at all over the goods bailed
	Answer :- A
58	A person appointed by the original agent to act in the business of agency, but under the control of original agent, is known as:
	A.	Agent	B.	Del credere agent
	C.	Substituted agent	D.	Sub-agent
	Answer :- D
59	A person appointed to contract on behalf of another person, is known as:
	A.	Principal	B.	Agent
	C.	Servant	D.	Contractor
	Answer :- B
60	Where the agent contracts for a principal who is not competent to contract, in such a case, the agent is
	A.	Personally liable	B.	Not personally liable
	C.	Exceeding authority	D.	None of these
	Answer :- A
61	A contracts to pay B a sum of money when B marries C. C dies without being married to B.
	A.	The contract still can be forced	B.	The contract becomes void
	C.	either (A) or (B)	D.	None of these
	Answer :- B
62	The rights of the indemnity holder is covered by
	A.	Section 125	B.	Section 101
	C.	Section 224	D.	None of the above
	Answer :- A
63	Which of the following remedy is not available to the indemnity holder?
	A.	Right to receive the damages paid by him from the promisor	B.	Right to receive from the promisor the cost incurred in any suit
	C.	Receive from the promisor an appropriate sum for loss caused to his image	D.	Receive from the promisor, all sums of money paid by him in terms of compromise of the suit
	Answer :- C
64	How many parties are there in a contract of indemnity and guarantee respectively?
	A.	2 and 3	B.	3 and 2
	C.	2 and 5	D.	5 and 2
	Answer :- A
65	An agent in NOT personally liable for
	A.	Contract entered with third parties on behalf of employer	B.	Signs the agreement in his own name
	C.	Where the agent works for foreign principal	D.	Where the contract expressly provides for the personal liability
	Answer :- A
66	In Bailment, bailor is duty bound to disclose fault in goods bailed as provided in section
	A.	148, of the Contract Act	B.	149, of the Contract Act
	C.	150, of the Contract Act	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
67	The bailment of goods as security for payment of debt or performance of a promise is called
	A.	Pledge	B.	Special bailment
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
68	A person employed to do any act for another or to represent another in dealings with third person is called
	A.	Servant	B.	Labour
	C.	Agent	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
69	An unsound person cannot become
	A.	An agent	B.	Principal
	C.	Both (a) and (b)	D.	None of above
	Answer :- C
70	An agent is bound to render proper account to ____ on demand
	A.	His principal	B.	Sub-agent
	C.	Creditor	D.	None of above
	Answer :- A
71	As per the Factories Act "Adult"means a person who has completed year of age.
	A.	Fifteenth	B.	Sixteenth
	C.	Seventeenth	D.	Eighteenth
	Answer :- D
72	As per Factories Act, "Child" means a person who has not completed his Year of age. [Sec 2(c)]
	A.	Fourteenth	B.	Fifteenth
	C.	Sixteenth	D.	Eighteenth
	Answer :- B
73	The Factories Act imposes the following obligations upon the employer in regard to his workers. [Sec 7 A]
	A.	Health	B.	Safety
	C.	Welfare	D.	All the above.
	Answer :- D
74	Ensuring the safety, health and welfare of the employees is the primary purpose of the
	A.	Factories Act, 1948	B.	Payment of Wages Act, 1936
	C.	Equal Remuneration Act, 1976	D.	Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
	Answer :- A
75	If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a canteen.
	A.	250	B.	510
	C.	320	D.	100
	Answer :- A
76	As per section 2 in factories act, who will be called as an adult?
	A.	A person who has completed 21 years of age	B.	A person who is less than 19 years of age
	C.	A person who has completed 24 years of age	D.	A person who has completed 18 years of age
	Answer :- D
77	Which section of the act covers the topic annual leave with wages?
	A.	Section 27	B.	Section 5
	C.	Section 86	D.	Section 79
	Answer :- D
78	Section 76 empowers the state government to make rules for ___
	A.	The period of work for all children employed	B.	Fitness certificate to work in a factory
	C.	Canteen facilities	D.	Prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for working in factories
	Answer :- D
79	Which of the below mentioned provisions come under safety provisions?
	A.	Lighting	B.	Crache
	C.	Selfty acting machinery	D.	Ventilation and Temperature
	Answer :- C
80	The first Factories Act was enacted in
	A.	1881	B.	1895
	C.	1897	D.	1885
	Answer :- A
81	Which one of the following is not Welfare provision under Factories Act, 1948
	A.	Canteen	B.	Crèches
	C.	Alcoholic Beverage	D.	Drinking Water.
	Answer :- C
82	Crèche is to be provided if______ or more lady employees are engaged.
	A.	25	B.	32
	C.	30	D.	40
	Answer :- C
83	The Factories Act, 1948 requires the appointment of the ‘Safety Officer’ in factories employing at least
	A.	250 workers	B.	500 workers
	C.	1000 workers	D.	None of the above
	Answer :- C
84	Minimum ……….. persons must be employed in as establishment for the applicability of the PF act.
	A.	15	B.	20
	C.	35	D.	50
	Answer :- B
85	Which of the following statements relating to the Employees’ Compensation Act is not correct?
	A.	This Act has a link with the Workmen’s Compensation Act	B.	This act is the outcome of the amendment that was made to the Workmen’s Compensation Act
	C.	This act does not have any provision relating to temporary disablement of workmen	D.	This act has a provision relating to permanent partial disablement
	Answer :- C
86	RTI Act 2005 came into force on
	A.	12-Oct-05	B.	15-Aug-05
	C.	15-Jun-05	D.	1 November 2005
	Answer :- A
87	The officer designated by the public authorities in all administrative units or offices under it to provide information to the citizens requesting for information under the Act is know as
	A.	Appellate Authority	B.	Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
	C.	Public Information Officer (PIO)	D.	Assistant Public Information Officer
	Answer :- C
88	What is the time limit to get the information under RTI Act 2005?
	A.	15 days	B.	45 days
	C.	60 days	D.	30 days
	Answer :- D
89	What is the time limit to get the information concerning the life and liberty of a person?
	A.	48 hours	B.	24 hours
	C.	5 days	D.	10 days
	Answer :- A
90	What is the fee for getting information under RTI Act
	A.	Rs.20/-	B.	Rs.50/-
	C.	Rs.100/-	D.	Rs.10/-
	Answer :- D
91	First Appeal shall be disposed of by the first appellate authority within ------ days from the date of its receipt.
	A.	40 days	B.	30 days
	C.	60 days	D.	50 days
	Answer :- B
92	what is CSR
	A.	Corporate social responsibility	B.	company social reponsibility
	C.	corporate society responsibility	D.	company society reponsibility
	Answer :- A
93	Which of these is a factor that affects ethical and unethical behaviour?
	A.	Ethical dilemma	B.	Diversity
	C.	Teamwork	D.	Open communication
	Answer :- A
94	The term ___________ refers to principles, values and beliefs that define right and wrong behaviour.
	A.	Customer satisfaction	B.	Empowerment
	C.	Innovation	D.	Ethics
	Answer :- D
95	____________ are those individuals who raise ethical concerns or issues to others inside or outside the organisation.
	A.	Entrepreneur	B.	Whistle blowers
	C.	Social entrepreneur	D.	Social impact management
	Answer :- B
96	Which statement is/are true?
	A.	Ethics is not synonymous to religious morality or moral theology	B.	Ethics is the principle that guide the human behaviour
	C.	The terms 'ethics' and 'morality' are not synonymous terms	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- D
97	Corporate social responsibility that extends beyond legal mandates can help meet societal expectations in the absence of
	A.	Statutory devices	B.	Social tool
	C.	Cost tool and Techniques	D.	Science tool
	Answer :- A
98	Which of the following does not contribute to the development of a manager's standard of ethics?
	A.	competitor behaviours	B.	society's norms and values
	C.	individual life experiences	D.	environmental situations
	Answer :- A
99	Which one of the following is not principle business ethics?
	A.	Principle of universality	B.	Principle of humanity
	C.	Principle of autonomy	D.	Principle of dissatisfaction
	Answer :- D
100	Which statement is true?
	A.	Human values system plays a vital role in total quality management	B.	Values give the real meaning to total quality management effort
	C.	Total quality management is a corporate management strategy	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- D
101	Which of the following statements about ethical standards are TRUE?
	A.	The upper limits of ethical standards are set by individual standards	B.	The laws of economically developed countries generally define the lowest common denominator of acceptable behaviour
	C.	The actual degree of enforcement of the law in an underdeveloped country would determine the lower limit of permissible behaviour	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- D
102	Unethical behaviour is often triggered by
	A.	Pressure from higher management to achieve goals	B.	An organizational atmosphere that condones such behaviour
	C.	Both (a) & (b)	D.	Asystem of checks and balances
	Answer :- C
103	"Ethics deals with the right actions of individuals." Who said?
	A.	Peter F. Drucker	B.	C. S. Rao
	C.	J. R. Betty	D.	D. C. Zahe
	Answer :- A
104	An organisation's obligation to act to protect and improve society's welfare as well as its own interests is referred to as
	A.	organisational social responsibility	B.	organisational social responsiveness
	C.	corporate obligation	D.	business ethics
	Answer :- A
105	Managers today are usually quite sensitive to issues of social responsibility and ethical behaviour because of __________.
	A.	interest groups	B.	legal and governmental concerns
	C.	media coverage	D.	all of the above
	Answer :- D
106	Business ethics deals primarily with
	A.	social responsibility	B.	the pricing of products and services
	C.	moral obligation	D.	being unfair to the competition
	Answer :- C
107	Which is the principle of business ethics?
	A.	Selflessness	B.	Integrity
	C.	Objectivity	D.	Humanity
	Answer :- D
108	The factors causing ethical behaviour in business are
	A.	Government law	B.	Government policies
	C.	Public awareness	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- D
109	A firm is said to have good corporate social performance when
	A.	stockholders invest in socially responsible causes	B.	charitable deductions are automatically deducted from pay without the consent of employees
	C.	the company has not been convicted of ethical violations for five consecutive years	D.	stakeholders are satisfied with its level of social responsibility
	Answer :- D
110	Corporate planning is an ongoing or continuous process. It is a dynamic exercise that goes on throughout the
	A.	Corporate life	B.	Corporate responsibility
	C.	Budget	D.	Business status
	Answer :- A
111	Management's social responsibilities include all of the following except
	A.	economic	B.	caretaker
	C.	legal	D.	ethical
	Answer :- B
112	The Indian ethos is for the individual self to become aware, develop and contribute social welfare by linking yourself to the
	A.	Customs	B.	Business
	C.	Cooperation and planning	D.	Society
	Answer :- A
113	What is the classical view of management's social responsibility?
	A.	To create specific environment in work place	B.	To maximise profits
	C.	To protect and improve society's welfare	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- B
114	What does the socio - economic view of social responsibility talk about?
	A.	Social responsibility goes beyond making profits to include protecting and improving society's welfare	B.	Encourage business
	C.	Financial return	D.	None of the above
	Answer :- A
115	Which of the following is a disadvantage of social responsibility?
	A.	Possession of resources	B.	Ethical obligation
	C.	Public image	D.	Violation of profit maximisation
	Answer :- D
116	Which of these is a purpose of shared organisational values?
	A.	Build Team Support	B.	Influence marketing efforts
	C.	Guide managers' decisions and actions	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- D
117	Which of these is a factor that affects ethical and unethical behaviour?
	A.	Ethical dilemma	B.	Diversity
	C.	Teamwork	D.	Open communication
	Answer :- A
118	The term ___________ refers to principles, values and beliefs that define right and wrong behaviour.
	A.	Customer satisfaction	B.	Empowerment
	C.	Innovation	D.	Ethics
	Answer :- D
119	_____________ is a performance measure of both efficiency and effectiveness.
	A.	Organisational behaviour	B.	Organisational citizenship
	C.	Employee productivity	D.	None of the above
	Answer :- C
120	A person who is punished (or not rewarded) for unethical behaviour
	A.	is less likely to repeat the behaviour.	B.	will be angry.
	C.	will continue to behave unethically.	D.	will quit the firm.
	Answer :- A
121	Indian citizen have the right  to information because of
	A.	Judgment of suprem court	B.	all state adopted agree to  implement the act
	C.	implemetation of international law	D.	A law passed by parliament of india
	Answer :- D
122	How could  a public information officer  receive applications?
	A.	those submitted by  requester in hand	B.	send by e-mail
	C.	transferred by another public authority	D.	all of them
	Answer :- D
123	How many types of public authority  are there  in RTI.
	A.	Central public authority	B.	State public authority
	C.	Both	D.	None of the above
	Answer :- C
124	what is full form of POI
	A.	Public Information Officer	B.	private information officer
	C.	public individual officer	D.	private individual officer
	Answer :- A
125	An applicant making a request under RTI Act should
	A.	intimate the location of the information	B.	intimate the reasons for seeking information
	C.	be personally present to collect information	D.	None of the above
	Answer :- D
126	RTI application should be made
	A.	Orally	B.	In writing
	C.	Through electronic means	D.	b) & c) only
	Answer :- D
127	RTI application should only be made in
	A.	English	B.	Hindi
	C.	Official language of the area of the applicant	D.	Any of the above
	Answer :- D
128	If the information sought is not pertaining to the public authority to which the application is addressed, it should be
	A.	rejected	B.	Disqualified
	C.	Transferred to the appropriate public authority within 5 days	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- C
129	If the information sought pertains to life & liberty of a person, it should be provided within ---- from the time of receipt of application.
	A.	24 hours	B.	48 hours
	C.	60 hours	D.	72 hours
	Answer :- B
130	An employee who assists the PIO in providing information to the applicant is called
	A.	Deemed PIO	B.	Assistant PIO
	C.	Apellate authority	D.	Information Commissioner
	Answer :- A
131	First appeal can be preferred after expiry of ---- days time after the RTI application is made or within ---- days from the date of receipt of the unsatisfactory reply from the PIO.
	A.	45	B.	25
	C.	30	D.	40
	Answer :- C
132	Second appeal to the Central Information Commission can be made within 90 days against the PIO if
	A.	reply is not satisfactory	B.	reply is incomplete
	C.	Reply is delayed	D.	Any of the above
	Answer :- D
133	Who will appoint PIO ?
	A.	Who will appoint / designate the CPIO / PIO ?	B.	Head of public authority
	C.	Central Information Commission	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- B
134	The Second Schedule of the RTI Act, 2005 can be amended by
	A.	Central Govt	B.	State Govt
	C.	Both	D.	None
	Answer :- A
135	Which section of RTI Act 2005 deals with 'obligations of public authorities'
	A.	Section 6	B.	Section 7
	C.	Section 4(1)	D.	Section 8
	Answer :- C
136	"How much time does an APIO, at the most , have to forward an RTI application/appeal to the Public Information Officer/First Appellate Authority "
	A.	30 days	B.	5 days
	C.	35 days	D.	48 hours
	Answer :- B
137	Right to information includes the right to obtaining information in the form of:
	A.	Writing	B.	Tapes
	C.	Floppies	D.	All of the above
	Answer :- D
138	The RTI Act gives right to seek information from the following:
	A.	private companies	B.	MNCs
	C.	public authorities	D.	associations
	Answer :- C
139	Central Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) is appointed by
	A.	President	B.	Vice President
	C.	Prime Minister	D.	Home Minister
	Answer :- A
140	Asst. Public Information Officer (APIO) has to forward first appeals to:
	A.	Public Information Officer (PIO)	B.	The head of the authority
	C.	First Appellate Authority	D.	None of the above
	Answer :- C
141	Asst. Public Information Officer (APIO) has to receive the following from the citizens:
	A.	Applications for information	B.	First appeals
	C.	Second appeals	D.	All the above
	Answer :- A
142	RTI Act is not applicable to
	A.	All  body owned, controlled or substantially financed by the appropriate Government	B.	All non-Government organisation substantially financed by politicl parties
	C.	All non-Government organisation substantially financed by the appropriate Government	D.	All the above
	Answer :- B
143	"Who receives applications under the `RTI Act, 2005`?"
	A.	Public Information Officer at the administrative unit level	B.	Assistant Public Information Officer at the sub-district, sub-divisional levels
	C.	Any officer of a Public Authority who is available in the Authority`s office when the application is made	D.	Only (a) and (b)
	Answer :- D
144	An applicant making request for information
	A.	shall be given the reason why the information sought for	B.	shall be given the personal details of the applicant
	C.	shall not be given any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him	D.	None of these
	Answer :- C
145	The first Indian state that introduce the a law on RTI was
	A.	Tamil Nadu	B.	U.P.
	C.	Maharashtra	D.	Gujarat
	Answer :- A
146	A Public Information Officer will be liable to be imposed a monetary penalty for
	A.	refusal to receive an information application	B.	not providing information within specified time limits
	C.	destroying information	D.	All of them
	Answer :- D
147	How many schedules does the `RTI Act, 2005` have?
	A.	5	B.	10
	C.	2	D.	8
	Answer :- C
148	While inquiring into a complaint, Information Commissions have the power to
	A.	Receive evidence on affidavit	B.	Requisition record or copies thereof from any court or office
	C.	Issue summons for examination of witnesses or documents	D.	All of them
	Answer :- D
149	Rules can be made by Appropriate Governments or Competent Authorities by notifying the rules:
	A.	in the Official Gazette	B.	by publishing them on the websites of Information Commissions - as applicable
	C.	by publishing them on the website of the Appropriate Government	D.	None of the above
	Answer :- A
150	"The definition of "information" under Section 2 (f) includes:"
	A.	Records	B.	Opinions
	C.	Documents	D.	All the above
	Answer :- D

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